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For a law to be appealed by a constitutional court, doesn't someone need to direct an appeal against it, I thought?

The law, to my knowledge, only extends to books because it's one a France's ways of making a point in the orphan works debate - by passing this law, they are now sort of undermining future solutions to the orphan works problem at a European level. Normally, we would want for the orphan works to become freely accessible for users or re-users and publishers, but this French solution clearly makes it so that the government is allowed to ask license fees for copyrights that they've expropriated.

France is not allowed, reasonably, to discriminate works of authors from other nations in accordance with obligations from international treaties. So this law must, therefore, reasonably, apply the same to all works, but presumably the subsequent licenses handed out by the French government will only cover the territory of France (since it is easier to geographically restrict the license agreement, which is under contract law, than the copyright itself, which is bound by international agreements).